Recombinant DNA Technology

Q1: Which of the following genetic diseases would be amenable to genetic engineering?

A Down's syndrome

B Muscular dystrophy

C Cystic fibrosis

D Cri du Chat

ANS:C - Cystic fibrosis

No answer description is available. 

Q2: Both DNA gel electrophoresis and SDS-PAGE of proteins are similar because

A in both cases molecules migrate to the anode

B both techniques rely on a constant charge to mass ratio

C both techniques utilize the sieving properties of gels

D all of the above

ANS:D - all of the above

No answer description is available. 

Q3: Restriction enzymes are named for

A the person who discovered

B the bacterium they are derived from

C the viral DNA that they attack

D none of the above

ANS:B - the bacterium they are derived from

No answer description is available. 

Q4: First discovered, Type II restriction endonuclease was

A Hinf I

B Eco K

C Hind II

D EcoRI

ANS:C - Hind II

No answer description is available. 

Q5: The unpaired nucleotides produced by the action of restriction enzymes are referred to have

A sticky ends

B single strands

C restriction fragments

D ligases

ANS:A - sticky ends

No answer description is available. 

Q6: Which of the following is not true of small inbreeding populations?

A They tend to loose genetic diversity

B There is an increased incidence of recessive diseases

C Alleles may become fixed

D Mutation is increased

ANS:D - Mutation is increased

No answer description is available. 

Q7: Which of the following can be diagnosed by amniocentesis?

A Down's syndrome

B Cystic Fibrosis

C Sickle cell anemia

D All of these

ANS:D - All of these

No answer description is available. 

Q8: Plant transformation can be obtained by

A combining plant and animal cells in culture

B shooting DNA into plant cells with a gun

C using the E. coli bacterium to infect plant roots

D infecting plants with a tobacco mosaic virus

ANS:B - shooting DNA into plant cells with a gun

No answer description is available. 

Q9: The transfer of antibiotic-resistant genes from genetically engineered bacteria to disease-causing bacteria __________ .

A would be of no concern if it occurred.

B has occurred

C can never occur

D seems unlikely

ANS:D - seems unlikely

No answer description is available. 

Q10: The TP53 gene of chromosome 17 codes for a protein __________ .

A that plays a role in the digestive process

B involved in glucose transport

C involved in the regulation of the cell cycle

D that is like a white blood cell protein

ANS:C - involved in the regulation of the cell cycle

No answer description is available. 

Q11: A human cDNA library

A contains DNA for specific human proteins

B contains DNA for virtually all of the human proteins in vectors

C cannot be used to obtain human genes because it would be radioactive

D none of the above

ANS:B - contains DNA for virtually all of the human proteins in vectors

No answer description is available. 

Q12: X-rays cause

A the formation of thymine dimers

B ionization of water in the cell

C heat

D none of the above

ANS:B - ionization of water in the cell

No answer description is available. 

Q13: Isoschizomers recognize

A same recognition sequence but different recognition site

B same recognition site and recognition sequence

C same recognition site and different recognition sequence

D different recognition site and different recognition sequence

ANS:B - same recognition site and recognition sequence

No answer description is available. 

Q14: Which of the following techniques can be used to determine the defective gene and for developing cancer?

A Western blot

B Southern blot

C Northern blot

D Eastern blot

ANS:B - Southern blot

No answer description is available. 

Q15: Knockout mice are created by

A mutagenizing a mouse and selecting for mutant offspring

B creating a chimera by fusing cells from two different cell lines

C infecting the mouse with a retrovirus

D transfecting embryonic stem cells with an altered gene sequence

ANS:D - transfecting embryonic stem cells with an altered gene sequence

No answer description is available. 

Q16: Which of the following pair will produce complementary sticky ends?

A Eco RI & MspI

B Msp I & HPA II

C Sau 3A & Bam HI

D Mbo I & Sau 3A

ANS:C - Sau 3A & Bam HI

No answer description is available. 

Q17: The order for the construction of a cDNA fragment from mRNA is to

A bind oligo-dT, treat with reverse transcriptase, digest with RNase, add G residues to the 3' end, bind oligo-dC, treat with DNA polymerase

B treat with reverse transcriptase, digest with RNase, add G residues to the 3' end, bind oligo-dC, treat with DNA polymerase and bind oligo-dT

C digest with RNase, add G residues to the 3' end, treat with reverse transcriptase, add G residues to the 3' end and treat with DNA polymerase

D bind oligo-dC, treat with reverse transcriptase, digest with RNase, add G residues to the 3' end, bind oligo-dT and treat with DNA polymerase

ANS:A - bind oligo-dT, treat with reverse transcriptase, digest with RNase, add G residues to the 3' end, bind oligo-dC, treat with DNA polymerase

No answer description is available. 

Q18: Which of these genes codes for a protein that plays a role in growth?

A DCP1

B SCLC6A4

C KRTHA1

D GH1

ANS:D - GH1

No answer description is available. 

Q19: In order to insert a foreign gene into a plasmid, both must __________

A have identical DNA sequences

B originate from the same type of cell

C be cut by the same restriction enzyme

D be of the same length

ANS:C - be cut by the same restriction enzyme

No answer description is available. 

Q20: A plasmid

A is a circular DNA molecule

B always contains an origin of replication

C usually contains one or more restriction sites

D all of the above

ANS:D - all of the above

No answer description is available. 

Q21: Which of these genes codes for a protein that plays a role in white blood cell function?

A DCP1

B MPO

C GLUT4

D RP13

ANS:B - MPO

No answer description is available. 

Q22: In gel electrophoresis, DNA molecules migrate from __________ to __________ ends of the gel.

A negative ... positive

B basic ... acidic

C long ... short

D positive to negative

ANS:A - negative ... positive

No answer description is available. 

Q23: Under which of the following conditions would population gene frequencies remain the same?

A Selection for homozygotes

B Small population size

C Active migration between groups

D Random mating

ANS:D - Random mating

No answer description is available. 

Q24: When populations are small, gene frequencies can change from generation to generation and some alleles may become fixed in a population. This is called __________ .

A assortative mating

B inbreeding

C heterosis

D genetic drift

ANS:D - genetic drift

No answer description is available. 

Q25: Why is golden rice pale yellow in color?

A It is rich in chlorophyll a.

B It is rich in beta-carotene.

C It is rich in chlorophyll b.

D It is rich in phycobilins.

ANS:B - It is rich in beta-carotene.

No answer description is available. 

Q26: An expression vector

A always contains an origin of replication

B usually contains a gene that confers antibiotic resistance to the bacterial host

C always contains DNA segments for the regulation of mRNA production

D all of the above

ANS:D - all of the above

No answer description is available. 

Q27: Which of these restriction enzymes produce blunt ends?

A SaII

B EcoRV

C XhoI

D HindIII

ANS:B - EcoRV

No answer description is available. 

Q28: Restriction enzymes

A protect bacteria from viral infection

B cut DNA in a staggered fashion

C cut DNAs producing a blunt end

D all of the above

ANS:D - all of the above

No answer description is available. 

Q29: Which type of restriction enzymes do not usually require ATP?

A Type I

B Type II

C Type III

D Type IV

ANS:B - Type II

No answer description is available. 

Q30: Some genetic diseases cannot be diagnosed by changes in restriction sites. Some of these can be detected by allele-specific oligonucleotide probes. These are

A copies of the gene with an altered sequence so that a restriction site is inserted

B mutagenized copies of a gene

C short sequences that will hybridize only to a specific base sequence

D PCR-amplified variable numbers of tandem repeats (VNTRs)

ANS:C - short sequences that will hybridize only to a specific base sequence

No answer description is available. 

Q31: Which of the following is correct in terms of determination of location of genetic traits?

A Known protein coding sequences are too far apart to allow linkage determination for most new genes

B Restriction sites allow DNAs to be digested

C Protein-coding genes are always associated with a restriction pattern

D None of the above

ANS:A - Known protein coding sequences are too far apart to allow linkage determination for most new genes

No answer description is available. 

Q32: The RP13 gene of chromosome 17 codes for a protein __________ .

A involved in glucose transport

B that is a component of hair and nails

C involved in eye development

D involved in the determination of personality

ANS:C - involved in eye development

No answer description is available. 

Q33: What enzyme forms covalent bonds between restriction fragments?

A DNA primase

B DNA helicase

C DNA polymerase

D DNA ligase

ANS:D - DNA ligase

No answer description is available. 

Q34: An example of a restriction fragment length polymorphism is

A an Eco RI cuts DNA at a different sequence than Hind III

B different length fragments of DNA resulting from loss or gain of a restriction site

C cystic fibrosis results from a three base deletion in most cases but in other cases, other mutations are involved

D all of the above

ANS:B - different length fragments of DNA resulting from loss or gain of a restriction site

No answer description is available. 



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